Thanks for reading and replying. To be clear, yes, the phenomenon of oppression and abuse (and unfortunately even up to the point of genocide) is not unique. Specific events that happen across history around the globe undoubtedly share the universal human capacity for hatred and harm, but the specific circumstances and consequences that surround them will always be overwhelmingly unique. That's not a bad thing; in my eyes it makes sense for you to have drawn the comparison between what you saw representing Central American refugees because the comparison there is mainly in light of natural human reactions to *trauma*

I also share a sense of personal urgency as a Jewish person to combat racism in no small part due to the fact that the Holocaust happened. But I don't see much utility in people--namely non-Jewish people--invoking the Holocaust to drive political agendas, regardless of whether they are antisemitic. For instance, I don't condone people claiming that needing to get vaccines is "like the Holocaust," or that Israel is "doing the Holocaust" to Palestine (once again, to be absolutely clear, let's criticize the Israeli government and discuss Palestinian oppression with urgency, but there is not an equivalency that needs to be drawn here. If someone were to say "I can't comprehend how after experiencing the horrors of the Holocaust, Jewish people in Israel could still be so numb to the suffering inflicted upon Palestinians" that would make a whole lot of sense. But saying one event is precisely the same as another just for dramatic flair does nothing but attempt to diminish the original event, simplify reactions and understandings of the current event, and ultimately normalize the event so that it seems commonplace and ultimately forgettable or negligible). Does that make more sense?